NCLEX-PN Practice Test Questions

The National Council Licensure Exam for Practical Nurses (NCLEX-PN) tests the skills that candidate has acquired during the LPN training. Unless the aspirants clear this exam and attain licensure, they are not allowed to practice the profession.

The NCLEX-PN examination is divided into four main sections that are mentioned below with the percentage of the questions that are expected to come.

  1. Health Promotion and Maintenance (13% to 75%)
  2. Safe and Effective Environment
    • Safety and Infection Control (10% to 16%)
    • Coordinated Care (16% to 22%)
  3. Physiological Integrity
    • Pharmacological Therapies (11% to 17%)
    • Physiological Adaptation (7% to 13%)
    • Reduction of Risk Potential (10% to 16%)
    • Basic Care and Comfort (7% to 13%)
  4. Psychosocial Integrity (8% to 14%)

Along with the above-mentioned fields, the questions on communication, caring/compassion, teaching, and learning are also asked.

The majority of the questions in the test are multiple-choice questions having four options. In some question, only one option is correct, whereas others may have more than one correct answers. Fill in the blanks and ranking the steps from first to last are also a part of the exam. The candidates should purchase a test series or practice test questions to get an idea. Here, we have provided some practice questions for the LPNs who are preparing for the NCLEX-PN test.
1. The prescribed calorie intake for sedentary older men, children, and active women is:
A. 1600 calories
B. 2400 calories
C. 2000 calories
D. 2800 calories
Correct Answer: C

2. Select the possible infections that can have a negative impact on an HIV AIDS patient.
A. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
B. Wilm’s Sarcoma
C. Tuberculosis
D. Toxoplasma Gondii
E. Peripheral Neuropathy
F. Visual Losses
Correct Answer: A, C, D

3. The patient should sit while coughing and taking deep breaths because this posture:
A. Loosens respiratory secretions
B. Is physically more comfortable for the patient
C. Allows the patient to observe their area and relax
D. It helps the patient to support their incision by a pillow
Correct Answer: D

4. Select the ethical principles that are written with their description.
A. Beneficence: Do good
B. Self-determination: Accountability
C. Veracity: Treating all patients equally
D. Justice: Being honest and fair
E. Nonmaleficence: Do not harm
F. Self-determination: Facilitating patient’s choices
G. Beneficence: Do no harm
Correct Answer: A, B, F

5. While caring for a patient with multiple trauma, which condition is the most serious?
A. Hematuria
B. Decreased bowel sounds
C. A deviated trachea
D. Gross deformity of a lower extremity
Correct Answer: C

6. Which statement is true regarding appendicitis?
A. Mc Burney’s point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.
B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor for appendicitis.
C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
D. The disease is more common in females than males.
Correct Answer: A

7. Which skin disorder is most closely related to dandruff?
A. Scabies
B. Dermatitis
C. Acne vulgaris
D. Lice infestation
Correct Answer: D

8. Which of the following differentiates Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis?
A. Crohn’s disease has mainly mucosal involvement and it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
B. Crohn’s disease affects the rectum and left colon whereas ulcerative colitis affects the distal ileum and right colon.
C. Crohn’s disease results in shallow ulcerations and ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
D. The extent of involvement is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis and is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn’s disease.
Correct Answer: D

9. What is the percentage of newborns that have a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as drug ingestion or alcoholism?
A. 10% to 20%
B. 2% to 4%
C. 5% to 10%
D. 7% to 9%
Correct Answer: C

10. Select all the type of pain that are coupled with an example of it.
A. Central neuropathic pain: A spinal cord injury
B. Chronic pain: A stab wound to the chest
C. Radicular pain: A herniated spinal disk
D. Nociceptive pain: A laceration
E. Peripheral neuropathic pain: A fractured leg bone
F. Radicular pain: A broken bone
Correct Answer: A, C, D

11. Rh negative maternal blood indicates:
A. The mother would require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery.
B. The mother does not have a specific marker on red blood cells.
C. An incompatibility in the blood between mother and fetus.
D. The antibodies in the mother’s blood are attacking her baby’s blood.
Correct Answer: B

12. The correct sequential order of the stages of infection is:
A. The inflammation, infection and immunity stages
B. The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages
C. The prodromal, incubation, illness and convalescence stages
D. The prodromal, primary, secondary and tertiary stages
Correct Answer: C

13. Which of these patients is suffering from a healthcare acquired infection?
A. An 18-year-old male patient who developed an intravenous line infection two days after insertion.
B. A 67-year-old female patient who was admitted with a urinary tract infection.
C. A 5-year-old pediatric patient who develops the measles rash 3 days after admission.
D. A 72-year-old male patient who is at risk for infection secondary to AIDS/HIV.
Correct Answer: A

14. Periwound maceration occurs when
A. Negative-pressure to “air out” the wound is utilized.
B. The skin around the wound becomes hard and dry.
C. The skin around the wound gets damaged and soft.
D. Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound.
Correct Answer: C

15. How many bones are there in a newborn’s skull?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

16. Yellow and white spots on the oral mucosa, when scraped off leads to bleeding is a characteristic of which disease.
A. Candidiasis
B. Leukoplakia
C. Aphthous ulcers
D. Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: A

17. The fetal’s heart begins to pump its own blood in which of the following week?
A. 5th week
B. 6th week
C. 9th week
D. 3rd week
Correct Answer: D

18. The embryonic period during the pregnancy takes place from:
A. Weeks 3 to 5
B. Weeks 1 to 12
C. Weeks 6 to 10
D. Weeks 1 to 10
Correct Answer: C

19. Avulsed teeth should be placed in
A. Milk
B. Warm water
C. Saline water
D. Normal saline
Correct Answer: A

20. Which of the following are necessary elements of malpractice?
A. An intentional act
B. Causation
C. Patient harm
D. A breach of duty
E. Foreseeability
F. A non-intentional act
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E

21. What is a major difference between a problem-oriented medical record and a source-oriented medical record?
A. The source-oriented medical system uses charting by exception, and the source-oriented medical record system does not.
B. The problem-oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession’s progress notes, and the source-oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes.
C. The source-oriented medical record uses SOAP and the problem-oriented medical system consists of narrative progress notes.
D. The source-oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession’s progress notes and the problem-oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes.
Correct Answer: D

22. Select all the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
A. Thickened bodily hair
B. Heat intolerance
C. Insomnia
D. Constipation
E. Cool skin
F. Palpitations
G. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: B, C, F, G

Select the nursing theorist who believes that the patients can perform self-care.
A. Sister Callista Roy
B. Martha Rogers
C. Dorothea Orem
D. Madeleine Leininger
Correct Answer: C

24. What would you do if you suspect that a practical nurse is verbally or physically abusing a patient?
A. Report your suspicions to the charge nurse
B. Nothing because you are just suspecting
C. Nothing as you are not certain
D. Call the security department or the police
Correct Answer: A

25. Which of the following is the best method to relieve constipation during pregnancy?
A. Lying flat on the back while sleeping
B. Increasing the intake of vegetables and fruits
C. Reduction of iron intake by half
D. Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative
Correct Answer: B

26. What is the main aim of performance improvement activities?
A. To improve processes
B. To improve policies
C. To increase efficiency
D. To contain costs
Correct Answer: A

27. Which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function, if the nurse is caring an infant during a cardiac arrest?
A. Radial
B. Brachial
C. Pedal
D. Carotid
Correct Answer: B

28. What can help reduce patient’s anxiety and post-surgical pain?
A. Preoperative checklist
B. Preoperative teaching
C. Preoperative medication
D. Psychological counseling
Correct Answer: B

29. You are preparing a sterile field for an operating room surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field?
A. When you have put a sterile item only 1 inch and not 2 inches from the edge of the sterile field.
B. When you have accidentally poured a sterile liquid into a container that was placed on the sterile field.
C. When you have completely finished the field. You can’t stop the set up until it is all done.
D. When you turn your upper body only away from the field because the surgeon calls your name.
Correct Answer: D

30. Which of the following is a vector of infection?
A. An infectious fly
B. A contaminated thermometer
C. A contaminated ball
D. An infected person
Correct Answer: A

31. Which disease decreases the metabolic rate?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Cardiac failure
C. Cancer
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Correct Answer: A

32. Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as an outcome of chronic disease are all associated with:
A. Surgical asepsis
B. Cachexia
C. Venous stasis
D. Catabolism
Correct Answer: B

33. Select the member of the health care team that is paired with the function it performs.
A. Physical Therapists: The provision of assistive devices to facilitate the activities of daily living
B. Case Manager: Ordering medications and treatment
C. Occupational Therapist: Gait exercises
D. Speech and Language Therapist: The treatment of swallowing disorders
Correct Answer: D

34. Which electrolyte is important for neurochemical and enzyme activities?
A. Chloride
B. Phosphate
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: D

35. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), health can be defined as:
A. A holistic state of well-being
B. A use of health promotion activities
C. The absence of any comorbidities
D. The absence of all disease and illness
Correct Answer: A

36. What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal test?
A. Examination of the rectum and anus
B. Visual assessment of vagina and cervix
C. Urinalysis for protein, glucose, and ketones
D. Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen
Correct Answer: C

37. Select the procedures that use surgical asepsis techniques.
A. Donning gloves in the operating room
B. Neonatal bathing
C. Emptying a urinary drainage bag
D. Central line intravenous medication administration
E. Foley catheter insertion
F. Intramuscular medication administration
Correct Answer: A, E, D

38. The main difference between a nursing certification and practical nursing licensure in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is:
A. Renewed every 2 years and a nursing certification is renewed every 5 years.
B. Is legally mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification are not
C. Ensures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience.
D. Mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not.
Correct Answer: D

39. You are working as a practical nurse with medical-surgical patients in 2 east. The unit has been instructed to perform a horizontal shifting of the patients due to fire at 1 east. Where would you shift the patients?
A. 3 east
B. 3 west
C. 1 west
D. 2 west
Correct Answer: D

40. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is regarded as a:
A. Probable sign of pregnancy
B. Possible sign of pregnancy
C. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
D. Positive sign of pregnancy
Correct Answer: A

41. The data get collected and validated with the patient and/or family members by the nurse during:
A. The planning phase
B. The evaluation phase
C. The assessment phase
D. The implementation phase
Correct Answer: C

42. Which of the following is the best-worded outcome?
A. “The patient will value health.”
B. “The nurse will ensure that the patient is safe.”
C. “The patient will cough and deep breathe every 2 hours.”
D. “The nurse will provide for adequate hydration.”
Correct Answer: C

43. If the patient suffering from Cushing’s syndrome asks what is Cushing Syndrome, how would you respond?
A. “Cushing’s syndrome often occurs among patients who are getting radiation therapy.”
B. “Cushing’s syndrome mostly occurs with patients getting the treatment of chemotherapy.”
C. “Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder of the adrenal gland.”
D. “Cushing’s syndrome is a type of irritable bowel syndrome.”
Correct Answer: C

44. Which developmental task is a challenge for a boy of six years suffering from respiratory compromise and cystic fibrosis?
A. To develop self-control and autonomy
B. To establish industry and self-confidence
C. To develop a sense of purpose and initiative
D. To deep breathe, cough, and improve respiratory status
Correct Answer: C

45. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?
A. Breast cancer
B. Gastric cancer
C. Pancreatic cancer
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: C

46. If you are asked to take the orientation class of new nursing assistants about hand washing and infection control techniques, what would you include in the teaching?
A. Using hot water so that the natural fats on the skin are emulsified by the soap.
B. Demonstrate the correct one-minute hand washing procedure using soap and running water.
C. Using cold water so that the natural fats on the skin are emulsified with the soap.
D. Demonstrate the correct process of hand washing using soap and running water for 2 minutes.
Correct Answer: D

47. How many minims are there in 1 millimeter?
A. 20
B. Between 15 or 16
C. 12
D. Between 10-11
Correct Answer: B

48. Which patient is at the greatest risk for choledocholithiasis and cholelithiasis?
A. A 50-year-old male patient who is Asian
B. A 70-year-old female patient who has liver disease
C. A 50-year-old female patient who is Asian
D. A 70-year-old male patient who has liver disease
Correct Answer: B

49. Which statement about Meniere’s disease is correct?
A. The disease occurs with an impairment of the second cranial nerve.
B. Meniere’s disease is insidious and always affects both the ears.
C. Antiemetic drugs are used for the treatment of patients suffering from Meniere’s disease.
D. It most commonly occurs among the members of the elderly population.
Correct Answer: C

50. Here are the methods of special precautions that are paired with the personal protective equipment which are minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection. Select the correct one.
A. Contact precautions: Gowns, gloves, and mask
B. Contact precautions: Gloves
C. Airborne transmission precautions: Negative pressure room
D. Droplet precautions: Face mask
Correct Answer: D

51. The patient just came to know that he is suffering from Mallory-Weiss tear. If he asks you about the disease. What would be your reply as an LPN?
A. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is an esophageal tear.”
B. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a lacrimal gland disorder.”
C. ”A Mallory-Weiss tear is a kind of diverticulitis.”
D. “A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear that results from a peptic ulcer.”
Correct Answer: A

52. Select the pelvic type in females that often results in the cesarean mode of delivery.
A. Anthropoid
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynecoid
D. Android
Correct Answer: D

53. Select the statements regarding nursing assistant that hold true in all the states.
A. Nursing assistants are allowed to change sterile dressings.
B. Nursing assistants can apply topical medication lotions to the intact skin.
C. CNAs are permitted to change catheter tubings but not catheters.
D. CNAs have an expanding role in the majority of the states.
E. The trend is moving toward nurses only staffing patterns.
F. Nursing assistants do not have the authority to monitor patient’s physical status.
Correct Answer: D, F

54. What should the nurse do to prevent the infection from spreading?
A. Washing the hands
B. Applying standard precautions
C. Using personal protective equipment
D. Sticking to the principles of asepsis
Correct Answer: A

55. Which of the following options would indicate a low birth weight for a newborn baby?
A. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age
B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age
C. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age
D. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age
Correct Answer: D

56. If the neonate has a cleft palate, the surgical correction should be performed at the age of:
A. 16 to 20 months of age
B. 8 to 12 months of age
C. 12 to 16 months of age
D. 20 to 24 months of age
Correct Answer: B

57. Select the level of consciousness of a patient who shows no symptom of cognitive functioning but the basic symptoms like opening and closing of eyes- wake cycle.
A. Brain death
B. Obtunded
C. Locked in syndrome
D. A persistent vegetative state
Correct Answer: D

58. When the cervix softens and thickens during labor, it is known as:
A. Symphysis
B. Hyperplasia
C. Dilation
D. Effacement
Correct Answer: D

59. Besides cleansing the wound, what else happens during wound irrigation process?
A. Lowers the intensity of pain at the wound area.
B. Prevents the infection from spreading by magnifying the “clean” area.
C. Allows the introduction of medications in solution form.
D. Propels the extravasated blood from a hematoma into nearby healthy tissue.
Correct Answer: C

60. Wilms’ tumor is a form of:
A. Liver cancer
B. Brain cancer
C. Renal cancer
D. Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: C

61. The person experiences involuntary motor activity in which stage of anesthesia?
A. Stage 3
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 1
D. Stage 4
Correct Answer: B

62. A cavity holding pus and surrounded by an inflamed tissue is:
A. An adhesion
B. Cellulitis
C. An abscess
D. Extravasation
Correct Answer: C

63. Which patient is utilizing his/her right to autonomy in reference to patient rights?
A. A 32-year-old who does not require a nurse for bathing and grooming him/her.
B. An unemancipated 16-year-old who does not wish to have an intravenous line.
C. An 86-year-old woman who is not dependent on others to carry out the daily activities.
D. A 99-year-old who wants CPR even though the doctor and nurse do not think that it would be successful.
Correct Answer: D

64. The full form of PERLA, used for assessing the eyes is:
A. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity
B. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to acuity and light
D. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to acuity and light
Correct Answer: B

65. What is the duration that the woman can lactate for?
A. 30 to 36 months
B. indefinitely
C. 18 to 24 months
D. 12 to 16 months
Correct Answer: B

66. Select the anatomic malformations associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot.
A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
Correct Answer: A

67. Select the cranial nerve paired with its name.
A. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
B. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve
C. The first cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
D. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
Correct Answer: A

68. The doctor has prescribed 500 mg of a medicine in a day. You have got tablets of 250 mg each. How many will you give to the patient?
A. 4 Tablets
B. 2 Tablets
C. 1 Tablets
D. 3 Tablets
Correct Answer: B

69. Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development?
A. Freud
B. Lister
C. Erikson
D. Piaget
Correct Answer: D

70. Which can be termed as an internal disaster?
A. A patient fall
B. Unexpected staff absences due to illness
C. A computer hacking episode
D. The massive spread of pneumonia
Correct Answer: C

71. In a pediatric unit, which activity is most suitable for an 18-year-old patient?
A. A beach ball
B. A story book
C. A play session involving other children less than 2 years of age
D. Pickup sticks
Correct Answer: A

72. Which method is used to find out whether the patient has an irregular pulse or not?
A. Inspection
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Apical pulse
Correct Answer: C

73. Diabetes insipidus results due to:
A. A complicated pregnancy
B. A disorder of the pituitary gland
C. A diet enriched with carbohydrates and sugar
D. A disorder of the pancreas
Correct Answer: B

74. What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
A. Occurs due to over-production of platelets
B. A bleeding problem that is identified with too few platelets
C. Treated with immune system boosting medicines
D. Similar to disseminated intravascular coagulation
Correct Answer: B

75. Who should document care?
A. The practical nurses should document the care that they provided along with the care given by unlicensed assistive staff.
B. All the staff members should document the care they have provided separately.
C. The registered nurses should document the care provided by the nursing assistants as they are responsible.
D. Each staff member should prepare a document care on the basis of care provided by them and get it signed by an RN.
Correct Answer: B

76. If a 54-year-old male suffering from HIV has died. How would you care for the deceased patient?
A. Keep the patient in an isolated place of the morgue having negative pressure.
B. Shroud the patient two times to avoid the infection from spreading.
C. Bathe the patient with the same precautions you used when he was alive.
D. Bathe the patient without using the precautions as he is dead now.
Correct Answer: C

77. The normal concentration of sodium in the body is:
A. 3 to 5 milliequivalents
B. 3 to 5 microequivalents
C. 135 to 145 milliequivalents
D. 135 to 145 microequivalents
Correct Answer: C

78. One of the nurses was fired from your workplace as she was clicking pictures of the people without their consent and posting on social networking site. She was fired because:
A. She acted in a negligent manner
B. Violated the law
C. Disobeyed an ethical principle
D. Did not complete proper documentation
Correct Answer: B

79. Which antrioventricular heart block is also popularly known as Mobitz II?
A. First-degree antrioventricular heart block
B. Third-degree antrioventricular heart block
C. Second-degree antrioventricular heart block
D. Complete heart block
Correct Answer: B

80. Select the performance improvement technique that is used to find out the underlying process flaws?
A. People at fault processes
B. Cause and effect
C. Small group process
D. Root cause analysis
Correct Answer: D

81. The pain assessment scale used for infants during 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age is:
A. The Faces pain scale
B. The FLACC pain scale
C. The CRIES pain scale
D. The PEPPS pain scale
Correct Answer: C

82. A 32-year-old female patient is suffering from sydenham chorea, epistaxis, fever, abdominal pain, cardiac problems, erythema marginatum, and skin nodules. She might be suffering from the disorder:
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Leukemia
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Correct Answer: C

83. Which of the following patients is most likely to develop the Osgood-Schlatter disease?
A. An infant having low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks
B. A middle-aged patient who got exposure to asbestos in the shipping industry
C. An adolescent who is the captain of the soccer team and is physically active
D. A middle aged female who has fractured her hip and is on bed rest in hospital
Correct Answer: C

84. Select the health care providers that are allowed to access a patient’s medical record since they require the knowledge to care him/her effectively.
A. Registered nurses even when they are not caring for a particular patient
B. The Vice President for Nursing who is examining a patient fall
C. Student nurses looking after a particular patient
D. A quality assurance nurse gathering information for a performance improvement activity
E. Licensed practical nurses taking care of a specific patient
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E

85. If the client is suffering from occult hematuria, Osler’s nodes, tenderness of spleen, night sweats, and fever, what is the possible disorder s/he is affected by?
A. Pericarditis
B. Endocarditis
C. Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: B

86. Which of the following alternatives best define episiotomy?
A. A surgical cut in the abdomen to deliver the baby
B. The separation of umbilical cord between child and mother
C. Releasing the red plug from the cervix just before the crowning occurs
D. An incision of the perineum to avoid the tearing during delivery
Correct Answer: D

87. Which is the basic principle that you should follow while instructing the patients?
A. Assume that the patient has no or little knowledge regarding the topic.
B. Use medical terms so that the patient can converse with the doctor.
C. You will ask the patient to call another person from the family who can be instructed.
D. Give the instructions starting from least complex to most complex.
Correct Answer: D

88. Select the food item that increases the absorption of an iron supplement?
A. Green beans
B. Orange juice
C. Baked potato
D. Fortified milk
Correct Answer: B

89. Which is a normal measurement for a neonate?
A. Weight: 1,500g to 4,000g
B. Length: 16 to 22 inches
C. Head Circumference: 12.6 to 14.5 inches
D. Chest Circumference: 10 to 13 inches
Correct Answer: C

90. Select the medication that should be provided to the patient diagnosed with giant cell arteritis.
A. Methotrexate
B. Heavy doses of prednisone
C. Albuterol
D. High doses of aspirin
Correct Answer: B

91. The down-like hair on the shoulders, lower back, forehead and/or ears of the newborn’s are known as:
A. Vibrissea
B. Vernix
C. Lanugo
D. Millia
Correct Answer: C

92. Select the tactile sensation that is coupled with its procedure or description
A. Two point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the skin of the patient
B. Gross motor function: Use of lower limbs
C. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
D. Fine motor coordination: Use of fingers
Correct Answer: A

93. A 4-year-old female child suffered severe burns in a house fire. How will you examine the extent of her burns?
A. By using the Parkland Formula
B. By using the Lund and Browder chart
C. By using the Rule of Nines
D. By using the Rule of Tens
Correct Answer: B

94. Which of the following is paired correctly with its description about skeletal fracture?
A. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that extracts a part of bone from the ligament or tendon
B. A greenstick fracture: This bends the bone but does not lead to a fracture
C. A complete fracture: The fractured bone pierces to the skin surface through the skin
D. A pathological fracture: A fracture that occurs due to some physical trauma
Correct Answer: A

95. Which of the following joints support 360-degree circumflexion?
A. The elbow
B. The finger tips
C. The knee
D. The shoulder
Correct Answer: D

96. Which infection associated with the healthcare poses the greatest threat to the patients?
A. Intravenous line infections
B. C. difficile
C. Pneumonia
D. Catheter-related infections
Correct Answer: D

97. Choose the nursing theorist that is correctly paired with the model of nursing or the theory they are associated with.
A. The Nature of Nursing: Imogene King
B. The Goal Attainment Theory: Virginia Henderson
C. The Interpersonal Relations Model: Hildegard Peplau
D. The Twelve Nursing Problems: Faye Glenn Abdellah
Correct Answer: C

98. If the patient shows signs of hypovolemic shock, then in which position s/he should be kept?
A. The left lateral position
B. The supine position
C. The Trendelerberg position
D. The right lateral position
Correct Answer: C

99. Select the criterion that is coupled with its indication of gestational age or birth weight.
A. Small for gestational age: The neonate’s weight is less than 20th percentile
B. Large for gestational age: The infant’s weight is above 99th percentile
C. Low birth weight: The infant’s weight is less than 1,500g at the time of delivery
D. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate’s weight lies in the range of 10th to 90th percentile
Correct Answer: D

100. Select the nonpharmacological technique that involves the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls the basic body mechanisms.
A. Biofeedback
B. Chiropractic
C. Visualization
D. Meditation
Correct Answer: A

101. What could be the expected delivery date for the woman who got her last menstrual cycle on 20th April?
A. January 29th
B. January 20th
C. January 31st
D. January 27th
Correct Answer: D

102. Select the correct statement regarding adjuvant medications.
A. Adjuvant medications are schedule 1 narcotics.
B. Practical nurses are not allowed to administer adjuvant medications.
C. Adjuvant medications can be purchased over-the-counter.
D. Adjuvant medications are schedule 2 narcotics.
Correct Answer: C

103. Difficulty in running, riding a bicycle, climbing, and clumsiness are symptoms of:
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Septic joint, suppurative arthritis
C. Talipes or clubfoot
D. Duchennes’s muscular dystrophy
Correct Answer: D

104. Select a myth associated with pain management, addiction, and pain.
A. Addiction is signaled when the client employs stockpiling and deception.
B. Patients having a substance abuse history can use pain medications.
C. Drug tolerance, withdrawal, and physical dependence do not signify addiction.
D. Addiction can be precisely predicted.
Correct Answer: C

105. What intervention should be given to a patient having blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L.
A. Kidney dialysis
B. Intravenous calcium supplementation
C. Intravenous potassium supplementation
D. Parenteral nutrition
Correct Answer: A

106. Which of the following sounds during breathing is considered normal?
A. Rhonchi
B. Fine rales
C. Wheezes
D. Vesicular breath sounds
Correct Answer: D

107. Which of the following type of burn leads to maximum pain?
A. A second-degree burn
B. A first-degree burn
C. A fourth-degree burn
D. A third-degree burn
Correct Answer: A

108. The hormone responsible for the production of mother’s milk is:
A. Estrogen
B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Colostrum
Correct Answer: B

109. Identify the risk that results from immobility.
A. Increased vital capacity
B. A positive nitrogen balance
C. Venous vasoconstriction
D. Loss of bone calcium
Correct Answer: D

110. The daily feedings that are regarded normal for a newborn is:
A. 12 to 14
B. 6 to 8
C. 10 to 12
D. 8 to 10
Correct Answer: C

111. The projection of an internal organ through a surgical incision or wound is known as:
A. Exuded
B. Dehiscence
C. Serosanguineous
D. Evisceration
Correct Answer: D

112. Staples and sutures are removed after the surgery within:
A. 10 to 14 days if healing is considered adequate
B. 10 to 14 days if no further dressings are needed
C. 7 to 10 days if healing is considered adequate
D. 7 to 10 days if no further dressings are needed
Correct Answer: C

113. If your patient is suffering from orchitis, what information would you give to the patient regarding the disease?
A. The disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat.
B. The disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice.
C. The disorder is typically treated with surgery.
D. The disorder results due to streptococcus.
Correct Answer: B

114. Which type of practice resembles research-based practice?
A. Standard based practice
B. Benchmark practice
C. Evidence-based practice
D. Best practices
Correct Answer: C

115. A long-term care patient is suffering from chronic pain and requires increasing dosages to control his/her pain. What is the possible disease that this patient is suffering from?
A. Drug side effects
B. Drug interactions
C. Drug tolerance
D. Drug addiction
Correct Answer: C

116. If a woman has undergone miscarriages consecutively for three or more times. The spontaneous abortion is classified as:
A. Missed
B. Habitual
C. Inevitable
D. Threatened
Correct Answer: B

117. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at the rate of 1 in 8,100 births that are quite low as compared to the twins that occur at
A. 1 in 540 births
B. 1 in 2700 births
C. 1 in 85 births
D. 1 in 5400 births
Correct Answer: C

118. Identify the stage of viral hepatitis that is correctly paired with its characteristic:
A. The posticteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occurs
B. The preicteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
C. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
D. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
Correct Answer: B

119. Which diagnosis is proffered to the patients suffering from fibromyalgia?
A. Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances
B. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances
C. At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia
D. Decreased self-care in the activities of daily living related to fatigue
Correct Answer: D

120. Drugs, caffeine, or alcohol are high risk factors that fall under the category:
A. Environmental
B. Psychosocial
C. Biophysical
D. Social demographic
Correct Answer: B

121. What is the percentage of newborns who have developed a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors like drug ingestion and maternal alcoholism?
A. 5% to 10%
B. 7% to 9%
C. 2% to 4%
D. 10% to 20%
Correct Answer: A

122. Select the patient that is at the greatest risk of papilledema?
A. A male patient suffering from hyperthyroidism
B. An adolescent with a closed head injury
C. An elderly patient having cataract and macular degeneration
D. A male patient experiencing hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: B

123. Which of the following should be practiced to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?
A. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
B. A chest tube to reimpose normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax
C. The administration of a potassium sparing diuretic for heart failure
D. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure following a head injury
Correct Answer: A

124. Select the type of cardiac arrhythmia that appears and disappears spontaneously on its own, leading to ventricular fibrillation?
A. Premature arterial contractions
B. Torsades de pointes
C. Wenckebach
D. Premature ventricular contractions
Correct Answer: B

125. Identify the legal document that is supposed to contain information regarding the patient’s decision of not having a cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
A. Healthcare proxy
B. Durable power of attorney
C. Healthcare surrogacy
D. Advance directives
Correct Answer: D

126. Identify the stage of pressure ulcer that is paired up with its attribute.
A. Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis are lost or damaged.
B. Stage I: Only slight blanching when pressure is applied to the skin.
C. Stage IV: The loss of skin usually exposes some fat.
D. Stage III: The wound has eschar and slough.
Correct Answer: A

127. A patient is facing difficulty in swallowing the food and often chokes. What is the best for him/her?
A. Drink a little water after each byte
B. Tilt your head backward while swallowing the food
C. Tuckle the chin inside while intaking the food
D. A liquid diet
Correct Answer: C

128. Name the section that is marked in the diagram given below:

NCLEX-PN Practice
A. Right ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Coronary artery
E. Left atrium
F. Left ventricle
Correct Answer: C

129. While doing the neurological assessment of an adolescent patient, you come to know that s/he is suffering from Moro reflex. How would you interpret it as an LPN?
A. It is not a normal thing.
B. It is normal among adolescent.
C. It shows that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
D. It specifies that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
Correct Answer: A

130. If a child weighs 17.5 kg, it can also be said that the weight is:
A. 38.5 pounds
B. 36 pounds
C. 35 pounds
D. 34.8 pounds
Correct Answer: A

131. Select the amount of calorie required for an infant around 1-2 months old.
A. 120 calories per kilogram per day
B. 100 calories per kilogram per day
C. 140 calories per kilogram per day
D. 160 calories per kilogram per day
Correct Answer: A

132. Select the phase of shock that is correctly paired with its attribute.
A. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released, blood thickens, and fluid and proteins ooze out to the surrounding tissues.
B. The compensatory stage of shock: The level of lactic acid rises, and hypoxia occurs.
C. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions move out, metabolic acidosis increases, and sodium ions grow.
D. The initial stage of shock: The blood PH rises, and hyperventilation occurs.
Correct Answer: A

133. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid in every 8 hours. If you are using an intravenous tube that delivers 20 cc/drop, determine the rate at which you would set the intravenous fluid flow.
A. 42 gtts/min
B. 40 gtts/min
C. 50 gtts/min
D. 38 gtts/min
Correct Answer: A

134. Identify the risk factors associated with deep vein thrombosis.
A. Obesity
B. Nulliparity
C. The use of oral contraceptives
D. Leukemia
E. Rh negative blood
F. Type B and O blood
Correct Answer: A, C

135. The majority of the water escapes from the body through:
A. Skin
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. Intestines
Correct Answer: B

136. Select the statement that is true regarding glaucoma.
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in loss of tunnel vision and peripheral vision.
B. In order to protect the retina from glaucoma, bubbles are implanted.
C. Primary open-angle glaucoma results in eye pain, blurry vision and halos, nausea and vomiting.
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
Correct Answer: D

137. The doctor has advised to pour 20 cc of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. If you use a pediatric intravenous tube that releases 60 cc per drop, how many drops per minute would you administer?
A. 25 drops per minute
B. 22 drops per minute
C. 30 drops per minute
D. 20 drops per minute
Correct Answer: D

138. The mnemonic device ABCDE means:
A. Allergy, bleeding, chemicals, dietary, environment
B. Allergy, bleeding, cortisone, diabetes, emboli
C. Allergy, bleeding, cardio, diabetes, endocrine
D. Allergy, bleeding, cardio, digestive, endocrine
Correct Answer: B

139. The tool used to determine the conscious level of the patients is:
A. The Glasgow Scale
B. The Norton Scale
C. The Snellen Scale
D. The Morse Scale
Correct Answer: A

140. As you are supplying penicillin intravenously, the patient becomes hypotensive with a rapid pulse rate. What would you do?
A. Call the doctor.
B. Decrease the rate of intravenous medication flow.
C. Stop the intravenous flow.
D. Increase the rate of intravenous medication flow.
Correct Answer: C

141.Your client has doctor’s prescription that specifies “advance diet as tolerated”. The client after coming from the recovery room where appendectomy was performed, states that s/he is feeling hungry. Select the alternative that best describes the kind of food you should give to the patient.
A. A peanut butter sandwich
B. Chicken broth
C. Applesauce
D. Cheese and crackers
Correct Answer: B

142. A client suffering from hypothyroidism feels cold. The nurse can advise him/her to:
A. Dress in extra layers of clothing
B. Take a hot bath in morning as well as evening
C. Use an electric blanket at night
D. Apply a heating pad to the patient’s feet
Correct Answer: A

143. The chart of a patient who is suffering from schizophrenia depicts that s/he has echolalia. The nurse can suppose the client to:
A. Make up new words with new meanings
B. Speak using rhyme words
C. Repeat the phrases or words used by others
D. Include unrelated details while having conversation
Correct Answer: C

144. An elderly client is hospitalized for transurethral prostatectomy. Select the finding about which the doctor should be informed immediately.
A. Bright red urine with many clots
B. Hourly urinary output of 40-50cc
C. Requests for pain med q 4 hrs
D. Dark red urine with few clots
Correct Answer: A

145. A newborn suffering from physiologic jaundice is advised for a phototherapy. The nurse taking care of the patient should:
A. Place the baby on enteric isolation
B. Don a mask, gown, and gloves while taking care of the infant.
C. Give sterile water to the baby between feedings
D. Protect the baby’s skin from drying by applying an emollient.
Correct Answer: C

146. As per Ericson’s stage of growth and development, the developmental task related with middle childhood is:
A. Initiative
B. Trust
C. Industry
D. Independence
Correct Answer: C

147. Which of the following is a common side effect associated with bronchodilators?
A. Ataxia
B. Nausea
C. Tinnitus
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B

148. Select the signs associated with hypoglycemia.
A. Nausea
B. Slow pulse
C. Flushed skin
D. Tremulousness
Correct Answer: D

149. Which of the following meal choices are apt for a 6-month-old infant?
A. Apple juice, carrots, whole milk
B. Egg white, formula, and orange juice
C. Whole milk, egg yolk, Melba toast
D. Formula, rice cereal, apple juice
Correct Answer: D

150. Where should the nurse inject a vitamin K injection to a newborn?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Vastus lateralis muscle
C. Dorsogluteal muscle
D. Rectus femoris muscle
Correct Answer: B

151. Which medication is used while treating a patient with detoxification from alcohol?
A. Ativan (lorazepam)
B. Romazicon (flumazenil)
C. Antabuse (disulfiram)
D. Dolophine (methadone)
Correct Answer: A

152. Select the statement that is in accordance with the Kohlberg’s theory of the moral development of the preschool-age child?
A. Pleasing others is counted as good behavior.
B. Behavior is decided by consequences.
C. Obeying adults is viewed as a correct behavior.
D. Showing respects for parents is important.
Correct Answer: B

153. A metal fragment went into the right eye of a factory worker. How should the nurse treat him?
A. Cover both the eyes and transfer the client to the ER.
B. Cover the right eye with a sterile 4×4.
C. Flush the eyes with running water for 10 minutes.
D. Try to remove the metal with a cotton-tipped applicator.
Correct Answer: A

154. The physician has prescribed Cytoxan for a client suffering from nephrotic syndrome. The nurse should:
A. Bathe the patient with mild soap and water.
B. Request a low-protein diet for the patient.
C. Provide warmth to the joints which are swollen and inflamed.
D. Motivate the patient to drink extra fluids.
Correct Answer: D

155. A person suffering from acute lymphatic leukemia is treated with cimetidine, prednisone, and methotrexate. The aim of cimetidine is to:
A. Promote peristalsis
B. Reduce the secretion of pancreatic enzymes
C. Prevent a common side effect of prednisone
D. Increase the effectiveness of methotrexate
Correct Answer: C

156. Which of the following symptoms is related to the development of renal calculi?
A. Pancreatitis
B. Fractured femur
C. Gout
D. Disc disease
Correct Answer: C

157. A patient with anastomosis and bowel resection comes back to his room with an NG tube connected to the intermittent suction. Select the observation that states that nasogastric suction is working properly.
A. The client is able to swallow.
B. The abdomen of the client is soft.
C. The patient has active bowel sounds.
D. The patient’s abdominal dressing is dry and intact.
Correct Answer: B